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Wipro WASE Placement Paper Aptitude Questions

Problems on Trains

1. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A. 120 metres B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres D. 150 metres

2. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/hr B. 50 km/hr C. 54 km/hr D. 55 km/hr

3. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m B. 225 m C. 245 m D. 250 m

4. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3 B. 3 : 2 C. 3 : 4 D. None of these

5. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
A. 120 m B. 240 m
C. 300 m D. None of these

Time and Distance

A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
A. 3.6 B.
7.2 C. 8.4 D. 10

2. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed
A. 300 kmph B. 360 kmph C. 600 kmph D. 720 kmph

3. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:
A. 50 km B. 56 km C. 70 km D. 80 km

4. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:
A. 100 kmph B. 110 kmph C. 120 kmph D. 130 kmph

5. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
A. 9 B.
10 C. 12 D. 20

Height and Distance

1. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30º and 45º respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
A. 173 m B. 200 m C. 273 m D. 300 m

2. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30º with the man’s eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of the elevation becomes 60º. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P?
A. 43 units B. 8 units
C. 12 units D. Data inadequate E. None of these

3. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
A. 2.3 m B. 4.6 m
C. 7.8 m D. 9.2 m

4. An observer 1.6 m tall is 203 away from a tower. The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30º. The heights of the tower is:
A. 21.6 m B. 23.2 m C. 24.72 m D. None of these

5. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:A. 149 m B. 156 m
C. 173 m D. 200 m

1. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :
A. 1/4 B. 1/ 10 C. 7/15 D. 8/15
3. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days B. 15 days C. 16 days D. 18 days

4. A is thrice as good as workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together, they can do it in:
A. 20 days B. 22 1/2 days

C. 25 days D. 30 days

5. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
A. Rs. 375 B. Rs. 400 C. Rs. 600 D. Rs. 800

Simple Interest

1. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650 B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698 D. Rs. 700

2. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400 B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200 D. Rs. 7500 E. None of these

3. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5 years. What is the sum?
A. Rs. 4462.50 B. Rs. 8032.50 C. Rs. 8900 D. Rs. 8925 E. None of these

4. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?
A. 3.5 years B. 4 years C. 4.5 years D. 5 years

5. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
A. 3.6 B. 6 C. 18 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

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Verbal Ability Questions For Wipro WASE Placement

Spotting Errors
Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘D’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

1. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.

2. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.

3. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. She hardly knew how to do that problem,
B. and so went to her teacher, and asked her,
C. “How this problem is to be solved?”
D. No error.

4. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant
D. No error.

6. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. The Prime Minister has said that India would not have spent so much on defence
B. if some of the neighbouring countries
C. adopted the policy of restricting defence expenditure
D. No error.


In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

A. Lean B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated D. Obese
A. Limited B. Small
C. Little D. Short

A. Misappropriate B. Balance C. Remunerate D. Clear

A. Opening
B. Stodge
C. End D. Past tense of go


In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

A. Soft B. Average C. Tiny D. Weak

A. Started B. Closed
C. Finished D. Terminated

A. Red B. Natural
C. Truthful D. Solid

A. Influx B. Home-coming
C. Return D. Restoration

A. Abdicate B. Renounce
C. Posses D. Deny

Selecting Words
Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. Fate smiles …… those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.
A. with B. over
C. on
D. round
2. The miser gazed …… at the pile of gold coins in front of him.
A. avidly
B. admiringly
C. thoughtfully
D. earnestly

3. Catching the earlier train will give us the …… to do some shopping.
A. chance
B. luck
C. possibility D. occasion

4. I saw a …… of cows in the field.
A. group B. herd C. swarm D. flock

5. The grapes are now …… enough to be picked.
A. ready B. mature
C. ripe D. advanced


Find the correctly spelt words.

Find the correctly spelt words.

1. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. Efficient B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment D. Employd

2. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. Foreign
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn D. Forein
3. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. Ommineous B. Omineous
C. Ominous D. Omenous

4. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. Pessenger B. Passenger
C. Pasanger D. Pesanger

5. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. Benefitted B. Benifited
C. Benefited
D. Benefeted

Sentence Formation

Directions to Solve

In each question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.

1. 1. I 2. immediately 3. salary 4. my 5. want
A. 43152 B. 15432
C. 25143 D. 42351
E. 45132

2. 1. do 2. today 3. you 4. must 5. it
A. 34152
B. 25413
C. 12543 D. 51324
3. 1. left 2. the 3. house4. he 5. suddenly
A. 12435 B. 21354
C. 45123 D. 52341
4. 1. medicine 2. a 3. Neeta
4. given 5. was
A. 51423 B. 25431
C. 15423 D. 42531
E. 35421
5. 1. of 2. we 3. heard 4. him 5. had
A. 42351 B. 52341
C. 25341 D. 25431 E. 25314 Ordering of Words

Ordering of Words

Directions to Solve

In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearranage these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

1. When he
P : did not know
Q : he was nervous and
R : heard the hue and cry at midnight
S : what to do The Proper sequence should be:

2. It has been established that
P : Einstein was
Q : although a great scientist
R : weak in arithmetic
S : right from his school days The Proper sequence should be:

3. Then
P : it struck me
Q : of course
R : suitable it was
S : how eminently
The Proper sequence should be:
4. I read an advertisement that said
P : posh, air-conditioned
Q : gentleman of taste
R : are available for
S : fully furnished rooms The Proper sequence should be:

5. Since the beginning of history
P : have managed to catch
Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians
R : by a very difficulty method
S : a few specimens of this aquatic animal The Proper sequence should be:

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Wipro WASE 2011 Selection Procedure

The selection process
The selection procedure for WASE comprises of two stages, a Common Entrance Test and HR interview. Dates for each stage would be made available to you upon registration

An aptitude test which consisted of following pattern:

* 20 verbal reasoning
* 40 analytical
* 10 basic computer litreacy

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Wipro Latest Placement Papers Solved Questions

WIPRO Placement Paper Sample questions the placement held on 5th October 2010

1. When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts
(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
Ans. (d)

2. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 45%
Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time

Ans. (b)

4. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z. In both processes a charged particle is emitted. Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)

5. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

6. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports it to be a 6. What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8
(b) 5/8
(c) 3/4
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

7. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

8. Image of point (3,Cool in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4)
(b) (-1,4)
(c) (2,-4)
(d) (-2,-4)
Ans. (a)

9. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

10. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)

11. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source
Ans. (c)

12. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases
Ans. (c)

13. An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)

14. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4
Ans. (d)

15. In a balanced chemical equation (a) Atoms are conserved
(b) Molecules are conserved
(c) Moles are conserved
(d) Reactant and product molecules are preserved
Ans. (a)

16. How many grams of NaOH will react with 0.2 equivalent of HCl?
(a) 0.59
(b) 0.285
(c) 1.18
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following is least acidic
(a) Ortho-cresol
(b) Para-cresol
(c) Phenol
(d) Meta-cresol
Ans. (b)

18. In Reimer-Tiemann’s reaction, the reaction intermediate is
(a) Carbene
(b) Dichloro carbene
(c) Carbonion
(d) Carbonium ion
Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) C2H5OH
(c) Ethanol
(d) CH3OH
Ans. (b)

20.A catalyst
(a)always slows down the reaction
(b)always starts a rection that would not have ocurred at all otherwise
(c)causes changes in the rate of the reaction
(d)changes the quantities of the products formed

Ans. (c)

21.The rate of the first order reaction depends on the
(a) Concentration of the reactant
(b) Concentration of the product
(c) Time
(d) Temperature
Ans. (d)

22. The most abundant element in the universe is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Silicon
Ans. (a)

23. Integrate 3x + 5 / (x3-x2-x+1)
(a) 1/2 log | (x+1)/(x-1) | – 4/(x-1)
(b) log |2+tanx|
(c) -(1+logx)/x
(d) 2 log|(tanx)/(tanx+2)
Ans. A

24. If y=cos-1(cosx + 4sinx)/(17)1/2, then dy/dx is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)

25. If the sum of n terms of two series of A.P are in the ratio 5n+4:9n+6. Find the ratio of their 13th terms
(a) 129/231
(b) 1/2
(c) 23/15
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

26. If the letters of the word “rachit” are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written out as in a dictionary, what is the rank of the word “rachit”.
(a) 485
(b) 480
(c) 478
(d) 481
Ans. (d)

27. Ravi’s salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 30%

Ans. (c)

28. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days. In how many days will A alone finish the job
(a) 48
(b) 34 2/7
(c) 44
(d) 45
Ans. (a)

29. How long will a train 100m long traveling at 72kmph take to overtake another train 200m long traveling at 54kmph
(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec
Ans. (b)

30. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?
(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4
Ans. (a)

31. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature?
(a) Mass
(b) Momentum
(c) Speed
(d) Kinetic energy
Ans. (d)

32. A solid is completely immersed in liquid. The force exerted by the liquid on the solid will
(a) Increase if it is pushed deeper inside the liquid
(b) Change if its orientation is changed
(c) Decrease if it is taken partially out of the liquid
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

33. Select the correct statements
(a) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic
(b) An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
(c) A periodic motion is necessarily oscillatory
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

34. An electron is injected into a region of uniform magnetic flux density with the components of velocity parallel to and normal to the flux. What is the path of the electron?
(a) Helix
(b) Parabola
(c) Circle
(d) Rectangle
Ans. (a)

35. A constant voltage is applied between the 2 ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if
(a) both the length and radius of the wire are halved.
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled
(d) the length of the wire is doubled
Ans. (b)

36. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water
(a) the fringe width will decrease
(b) the fringe width will increase
(c) the fringe width remains unchanged
(d) there will be no fringe
Ans. (a)

37. The shape of a spot of light produced when bright sunshine passes perpendicular through a hole of very small size is
(a) Square, because the hole is a square
(b) Round, because it is an image of the sun
(c) Round with a small penumbra around it
(d) Square with a small penumbra
Ans. (b)

Select the alternative that logically follows from the two given statements.
38. Some forms are books
All books are made of paper
(a) Some forms are made of paper
(b) Some forms are not made of paper
(c) No forms are made of paper
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

39. All toffees are chocolates
Some toffees are not good for health
(a) Some chocolates are not good for health
(b) Some toffees are good for health
(c) No toffees are good for health
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)

The questions 40-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
(E) If statements (I) and (II) are identical.

43. If a ground is rectangular, what is its width?
(I) The ratio of its length to its breadth is 7:2
(II) Perimeter of the playground is 396 mts.
Ans. C

44. If the present age of my father is 39 yrs and my present age is x yrs, what is x?
(I) Next year my mother will be four times as old as i would be.
(II) My brother is 2 years older than I and my father is 4 years older than my mother.
Ans. C

45. How many brothers and sisters are there in the family of seven children?
(I) Each boy in the family has as many sisters as brothers
(II) Each of the girl in the family has twice as many brothers as sisters
Ans. D

46. x is not equal to 0, is x + y = 0?
(I) x is the reciprocal of y
(II) x is not equal to 1
Ans. A

Following questions are based on letter’s analogy.First pair of letters should have the same relationship as the second pair of letters or vice versa.
47. ? : BGLQ : : YDIN : VAFK
(a) EKNS
(b) DKMT
(c) DLMS
(d) EJOT
Ans. (d)

48. NLO : RPS : : ? : ZXA
(a) VUW
(b) VTR
(c) VTW
(d) TRP
Ans. (c)

49. If “segment” is coded as rffndou, then “ritual” is coded as
(a) shutbm
(b) qjutbk
(c) qhutbk
(d) qhubtk
Ans. (c)

50. If “football” is “cricket” ,”cricket” is “basketball” ,”basketball” is “volleyball”,”volleyball” is “khokho” and “khokho” is cricket, which is not a ball game?
(a) cricket
(b) football
(c) khokho
(d) basketball
Ans. (a)

51. Which of the following is a recursive set of production

(a) S –> a|A, A –> S
(b) S –> a|A, A –> b
(c) S –>aA, A–>S
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

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Wipro Placement Paper Held on 17th Jan 2010 | Wipro Latest Placement Paper | Wipro Placement Paper Pattern

this is Arun, from JNTU College of Engineering, Anantapur. We had campus recruitment drive by WIPRO on 17th June 2010

The selection process consists of three rounds:

1. Written test.
2. Technical Interview
3. HR

Written test mainly consists of three sections:

There is sectional cutoff so we have to concentrate on the on all sections.

1. Verbal section 15 questions :

Synonyms 3 questions
Antonyms 3 questions
Active voice and passive voice 4 questions
Direct and indirect speech 2 questions
Correction of sentences 3 questions

2. Aptitude it is the easy section with 15 questions:

Time and distance
Venn diagrams
Problems on trains
Time and work
Binary notations

3. Technical 10 questions:

Basics of computer
C Questions i.e programs and 2 questions on micro processors

There is sectional cut off and no negative marking. lowest cut off is give for technical section, Verbal section is more difficult one. In our college, 200 members attended for the written test, 100 had cleared the test.

Technical Interview:

tell me about youself
wat is ur favourite subject
operating systems
wat are pointers
wat is null pointers
how pointers are represented
how values are assigned to pointers
small program for assigning pointers to arrays
wat is loaders
whether linking is done first or loading.
write a program to interchange two numbers
about pascals triangle
about the academic projects
asked about the technical papers which i had presented in the resume
and finally asked about the essay / short notes which they asked to write the question is”will digital divide India into many countries”

HR Interview:
why wipro
tell about yourself
how u r differ from others
why your percentage is less in B.Tech than in M.Tech
narrate a short story of 2 min

Global warming
Some questions on General topics

All the Best

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Wipro Electronics Technical Interview Sample Questions

1. An electron moving in an electromagnetic field moves in a
(a) In a straight path
(b) Along the same plane in the direction of its propagation
(c) Opposite to the original direction of propagation
(d) In a sine wave
Ans. (b)
2. The total work done on the particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy
(a) Always
(b) Only if the forces acting on the body are conservative.
(c) Only if the forces acting on the body are gravitational.
(d) Only if the forces acting on the body are elastic.
Ans. (a)
3. The following unit measure energy:
(a) Kilo-watt hour.
(b) Volt*volt/sec*ohm.
(c) Pascal*foot*foot
(d) (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad
Ans. (a)
4. Astronauts in stable orbits around the earth are in a state of weightlessness because
(a) There is no gravitational force acting on them.
(b) The satellite and the air inside it have an acceleration equal to that of gravitational acceleration there.
(c) The gravitational force of the earth and the sun balance giving null resultant.
(d) There is no atmosphere at the height at which the satellites move.
Ans. (b)
5. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe closed at one end, will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Ans. (c)
6. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
(a) Its internal energy increases.
(b) Its internal energy decreases.
(c) Its internal energy does not change.
(d) The work done by the gas is not equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it.
Ans. (c)
7. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected.
If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles
(a) The charge on the capacitor increases.
(b) The voltage across the plates increases.
(c) The capacitance increases.
(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases.
Ans. (b)
8. Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis.
A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will
(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
(b) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) Move to infinity
(d) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion
Ans. (d)
9. A square conducting loop of length Lon a side carries a current I.
The magnetic field at the center of the loop is
(a) Independant of L
(b) Proportional to L*L
(c) Inversely proportoinal to L
(d) Directly proportional to L
Ans. (c)
10. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air and then in water will
(a) Increase in water with respect to air
(b) Increase in air with respect to water
(c) Decrease in water with respect to. air
(d) Remain the same
Ans. (a)
11. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the surface is dependant on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)
12. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus of the atom
(a) Has a magnetic dipole moment
(b) Exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it by the nucleus
(c) Does not produce a magnetic induction at the nucleus
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
13. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:
(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain minimum wavelength
(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
Ans. (c)
14. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Always equal to its atomic number
(d) Sometimes more and sometimes equal to its atomic number
Ans. (d)
15. Two successive elements belonging to the first transition series have the same number
of electrons partially filling orbital. They are
(a) V and Cr
(b) Ti and V
(c) Mn and Cr
(d) Fe and Co
Ans. (c)
16. When n+l has the same value for two or more orbitals, the new electron enters the orbital where
(a) n is maximum
(b) n is minimum
(c) l is maximum
(d) l is minimum
Ans. (b)
17. A balloon filled with ethylene is pricked with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank full of hydrogen at the same pressure. After a while the balloon would have
(a) Shrunk
(b) Enlarged
(c) Completely collapsed
(d) Remain unchanged in size
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independent of temperature
(b) Tthe square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at a certain temperature
(c) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independent of the mean speed
(d) None
Ans. (b)
19. Which of the following statements represent Raoult’s Law
(a) Mole fraction of solvent = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent
(b) Mole fraction of solute = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent
(c) Mole fraction of solute = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
(d) Mole fraction of solvent = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
Ans. (a)
20. Elements having the same atomic number and the same atomic mass are known as
(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) None of the above
21.Which is the most acidic amongst
(a) Nitrophenol
(b) O-toulene
(c) Phenol
(d) Cresol
22. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it is
(a) Almost not ionised
(b) Low boiling
(c) Neutral
(d) Readily decomposed
Ans. (a)
23. In a salt bridge, KCl is used because
(a) It is an electrolyte
(b) The transference number of K+ and Cl¯ is nearly the same
(c) It is a good conductor of electricity
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
24. A depolarizer used in the dry cell batteries is
(a) KCl
(b) MnO2
(c) KOH
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
25. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by aqueous NaOH is best termed as
(a) Electrophylic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophylic addition reaction
(c) Nnucleophylic addition reaction
(d) Nucleophylic substitution reaction
Ans. (d)
26. The hydrocarbon that gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is (where ‘º’ means a triple bond)
(a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
(b) CH3-CºC-CH3
(c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
(d) CH3-CH2-CºCH
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following reagents is neither neutral nor basic
(a) Lucas’ reagent
(b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Bayer’s reagent
(d) Fehling’s solution
Ans. (a)
28. The substance which is most easily nitrated
(a) Toluene
(b) Bbenzene
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Chlorobenzene
Ans. (a)
29. Carbylamine reaction is a test for
(a) Primary amine
(b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine
(d) Quarternary ammonium salt
Ans. (a)
30. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by carbon to obtain metal
(a) ZnO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) PbO
Ans. (b)
31. Which of the following is not an oxide ore?
(a) Cassiterite
(b) Siderite
(c) Pyrolusite
(d) Bauxite
Ans. (b)
32. Which among the following is called philosopher’s wool
(a) Cellulose
(b) Calamine
(c) Stellite
(d) Cerussite
Ans. (c)
33. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls
(a) 234
(b) 52
(c) 630
(d) 879
Ans. (d)
34. A and B throw a dice. The probability that A’s throw is not greater than B’s is
(a) 5/12
(b) 7/12
(c) 11/12
(d) 5/36
Ans. (b)
35. Given two numbers a and b. Let A denote the single AM between these and S denote the sum of n AMs between them. Then S/A depends upon
(a) n
(b) n,a
(c) n,b
(d) n,a,b
Ans. (a)
36. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then, a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of the these
Ans. (c)
In the following questions ~ represents the integral sign-for eg. 1~2[f(x)] means integration of the function f(x) over the interval 1 to2.
37. Value of -1~2[|2-x²|]dx, ie integration of the function |2-x²| over the interval -1 to 2.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
38. If 0~P[log sinx]dx=k,then the value of 0~P/4[log(1 + tan x)]dx ,where P stands for pi,is
(a) -k/4
(b) k/4
(c) -k/8
(d) k/8
Ans. (c)
39. If a,b,c be in GP and p,q be respectively AM between a, b and b, c then
(a) 2/b=1/p+1/q
(b) 2/b=1/p-1/q
(c) 2=a/p-c/q
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
40. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2 .The normality of solution is 0.6.The molarity is
(a) 1.8M
(b) 0.6M
(c) 0.1M
(d) 0.2M
Ans. (d)
The questions 41-46 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions. The correct answer is
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
41. What is John’s age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)
42. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)
43.Is A=C ? A,B,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)
44. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)
45.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)
46. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)
47. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)
48. X’s father’s wife’s father’s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
49. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)
50. If in a certain code “RANGE” is coded as 12345 and “RANDOM” is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word “MANGO” would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)
51. If “PROMPT” is coded as QSPLOS ,then “PLAYER” should be
Ans. (a)
The questions 52-53 are based on the following data 6 people A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a table for dinner. Since A does not like C, he doesn’t sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to sit opposite each other.
52. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbors of B?
(a) D and C
(b) E and C
(c) D and E
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans. (c)
53. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?
(a) E and B
(b) D and A
(c) D and B
(d) either (a) or (c)
Ans. (d)
54. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _
(a) B, F
(b) Y, C
(c) G, I
(d) K, O
Ans. (b)
55. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels 6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)
56. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
57. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
58. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
59. The format specifier “-%d” is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)
60. Virtual functions allow you to
(a) Create an array of type pointer-to-base-class that can hold pointers to derived classes
(b) Create functions that have no body
(c) Group objects of different classes so they can all be accessed by the same function code
(d) Use the same function call to execute member functions to objects from different classes
62. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)
63. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
64. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
65. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
66. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
67. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixedband channels
Ans. (b)
68. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)
69. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)
70. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
71. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)
72. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
73. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady’s anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)
74. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalized views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema’s description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

For More Placement Papers Click Here

WIPRO – 19 JAN 2008

WIPRO TECHNOLOGIES came for recruitment process in our college on 19th Jan 2008. The process was to be conducted on three parts i.e.

Written had three sections:-
2-Analytical and

There was sectional cutt off but no neg marking. it consist of 50 questions (15 verbl, 15analyst, 20 tech) in 60 mins..

Verbal section was easy and consist of spellathon, active-passive, direct-indirect speech. etc

Analytical consist questions frm RS AGGARWAL (time distance, percentage, train, profit-loss) and some questions were on reasoning…

Technical was somewat tough (frm C skills), satellite comm… etc

As I given written, i was sure to clear my written and result declared nearly after 2 hrs and 188 students were selected out of 485 students…

In technical interview, the interviewer asked me basically on C lang and data structures as i mentioned them in my cv…. he asked stack, application on stack, program of reversing the string without using stack which i already knew well bt he asked me the program of swapping using bitwise operator which I dont knew…….then he asked me abt project and wat i feel is difficult during making a project… at last he asked whether i have any queries… I asked the same question he asked 2 me, tat is, of bitwise operator. I was much confident.. after tat he gave me HR form and I thanked him.

The third round was HR INTERVIEW.. the HR already had my written test and tehnical interview’s comment. he asked me my name and my introduction… then he said me tat the strength tat i had written in my cv are why my strength.. i answered all… tat’s all

After waitin 3-4 hrs the result declared at nearly 1 a.m. and out of 55 people 41 students selected in HR and I was 1 of them.


WIPRO Placement Paper Pattern

Wipro Sample Paper

Q1. Two bodies changed from p1v1 to p2v2 state in two ways. The heat supplied is delta Q and work done is delta W Then what is constant in these two processes

(a) delta q
(b) delta w
(c) delta q + delta w
(d) delta q – delta w

Ans. (d)

Q2. _______ have same atomic number and same mass number are

(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) Isobars

Ans. (c)

Q3. When a free electron is placed in a plane of electro magnetic then it moves in

(a) in the direction of the electric field
(b) in the direction of magnetic field
(c) of propagation of wave
(d) of the plane containing magnetic field and propagation direction.

Q4. Name the phenomena in which one proton is jumped from one isomer to another isomer to create two different elements

(a) functional isomerisim
(b) sterio merisim
(c) tauto merisim
(d) penta merisim

Ans. (c)

Q5. In the below compounds which one has 40% C ,6.7% H and 53.3 % O what is its empherical formula

(a) CHO
(b) CH2
(c) C2H2O2
(d) C2H3O2

Ans: (b)

Q6. X rays are coming from X ray tube, the wavelength is _______ a certain wavelength/s

(a) below
(b) above
(c) inbetween
(d) out of

Ans. (c)

Q7. In a triode valve in order to increase the saturation current what has to be done

(a) increase plate voltage
(b) reduce distance between grid and plate
(c) increase cathode potential
(d) reduce grid potential

Ans. (d )

Q8. Seven different toys are distributed among 3 children how many different ways are possible?

(a) 7C3
(b) 7P3
(c) 3 7
(d) 7 3

Ans. (c)

Q9. A, B ans C are three speakers. They have to speak randomly along with another 5 speakers in a function.A has to speak before B and B has to speak before C. What is the probability.

Ans. 1/6

Q10. If dy = (secx + ytanx)dx, Then the curve is

(a) x = ycosx
(b) x = ysinx
(c) x = ytanx
(d) x = ysecx

Ans. (a)

Q11. Two series are 16,21,26…. and 17,21,25…..What is the sum of first hundred common numbers

(a) 101100
(b) 110100
(c) 101110
(d) 110101

Ans. (a)

Q12. There are two sections in a question paper each contain five questions. A students has to answer 6 questions.Maximum no. of questions that can be answered from any section is 4. How many ways he can attempt the paper?

(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 200

Ans. (d)

Q13. a and b are two numbers selected randomly from 1,2,3…. 25 what is the probability of a and b are not equal.

(a) 1/25
(b) 24/25
(c) 13/25
(d) 2/25

Ans. (b)

Q14. The sum of the series 1 + 1(1+1/n) + 3(1+1/n)2 + ….. is equal to?

Ans. n2

Q15. Two circles of different radii intersects each other what is the maximum no of intersections

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

Ans. (c)

Q16. If x= sin-1(t), y = log(1-t2), find d2y/dx2 when t=1/2

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -8/3
(d) -2/3

Ans. (c)

Q17. If x approaches infinity , then (òex dx )/( òe2xdx) is ?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2

Ans. (a)

Q18. If f(x)=1-cos(1-cosx)/x4 is continuos at f(0) then what is x

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1/4
(d) -1/4

Ans. (c)

Q19. For the word SURITI, if you arrange the letters in dictionary order then what is its rank?

(a) 234
(b) 235
(c) 236
(d) 237

Ans. (c)

Q20. Period of sin ((2t + 3) / 6 pi)

(a) 6pi
(b) 6pi2
(c) 3pi

Ans. (b)

Q21 – Q23. Four questions given on the below data

X,Yand Z are senior engineers. A,B,C,D are junior engineers. Company wants to select 4 enginers. Two will be senior and two will be juniors. The company wants these engineers to work in the most productive way so they respect each person’s likes/dislikes.

Y is not friends with A

Z is not friends with C

B is not friends with A

If B is selected then who will be the remaining 4 members ?

If C is selected, Z and ___ cannot be selected?

D is always selected if ___ is selected?

Q24. A speaks truth 70% of the times, B speaks truth 80% of the times.What is the probability that both are contradicting each other is ?

Q25. ò((2x-3)/((x2 +x+1)2 )dx is ?

Q26. Ram starts from A walking 2 km North and turns right and walks 4 km and turns right again and walks 4 km and turns right again and walks 4 km and meets Radha at Bwalking in the opposite direction to Ram .
a) Which direction does Ram walk after the first turn?

b) Distance between A and B

Q27. If the equation x2 – 3x + a = 0 has the roots (0,1) then value of a is ?

Q28. A and B’s temperature are 10°c and 20°c having same surface , then their ratio of rate of emmisions is ?

Q29. An atomic particle exists and has a particlular decay rate . It is in a train . When the train moves, a person observes for whether the decay rate

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) depend on the directions of movement of train

Q30. Which of the following exchanges positive ions

(b) nh2-
(c) ch2

Ans. (b)

Q31. After execution of CMP, a instruction in Intel 8085 microprocessor

(a) ZF is set and CY is reset.
(b) ZF is set CY is unchanged
(c) ZF is reset, CY is set
(d) ZF is reset , CY is unchanged .

Ans. ZF is set and CY is reset

Q32. The best tool for editing a graphic image is ?

Q33. Network scheme defines
a.)one to one
b.) many to many
c.) one to ,many ?

Q34. A person wants to measures the length of a rod.First he measures with standing ideally then he maeasures by moving parrel to the rod

(a)the length will decrease in second case
(b)length will be same
(c) length will increse in the second case.

Q35. One U-230 nucleus is placed in a train moving by velocity emiting alpha rays .When the train is at rest the distance between nucleus and alpha particle is x . One passenger is observing the particle . When the train is moving what is the distance between particle and nucleus ?

(a) x
(b) x + vt
(c) x – vt

Q36. What is the resulting solution when benzene and toluene are mixed ?

Q37. If the word FADENCOMT equals 345687921 then What is FEAT

Find representation of 2998

Q38. Given 10 alphabets out of which 5 are to be chosen. How many words can be made with atleast one repetition.

Q39. Arrange by acidic values : phenol, nitrotolouene and o-cresol?

Q40. Find sum of 3 + 5/(1+22) + 7/(1 + 22 + 32) + ……

Ans. 3n/(1 + n)

Wipro logical questions in 2008 for freshers

61.To reduce External Fragmentation the technique used is
A.Segmentation B.Compaction
C.Fragmentation D.None
Ans: B

62.Expand IDEA.
A.International Data Encryption Algorithm
B.Internal Data Encryption Algorithm
C.Inter Data Encryption Algorithm
D.Intra Data Encryption Algorithm

Ans: A

63. In which topology each computer is directly connected
to primary network cable in a single line.

A.BUS topology B.STAR topology
C.RING topology D.None

Ans: A

64. Advantages of DBMS?
A.Redundancy is controlled
B.Enforcing integrity constraints.
C.Data isolation.
D.All of the above

Ans: D

65. Extend DML
A.Data Manipulation Language
B.Data Multiplex Language
C.Data Model Language
D.Data Multiple Language
Ans: A

66.Extend YACC
A.Yet Another Compiler Compiler
B.Yet Another Computer Compiler
C.Yet Another Compact Computer
D.Yet Advanced Compact Computer
Ans: A

67. The copy operation by a simple assignment causes in some cases ? effect
B.copy exactly the same as original
C.creates new
D. hallo copy
Ans: D

68. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th innings and thus increases his average by 3. Find his average after 17th inning.
A. 42 B. 33
C. 39 D. 50
Ans: c

69. A father is twice as old as his son, 20yrs ago the gae of the
father was 12 times the age of the son. Find the present age of
the father.

A. 44 B. 33
c. 39 D. 50
Ans: A

70.If the price of the sugar decreases by 20%, find how much percent a house holder increase her consumption of sugar so as not to
decrease the expenditure.

A. 42 B. 25
C. 39 D. 50
Ans: A

71. The population of a city increases at the rate of 5% annually.Its present population is 185220. Its population 3 years ago was?
A. 181500 B. 183433
C. 16000 D. 127783
Ans: A

72. The CP of 12 articles is equal to SP of 9 articles. Find the
gain percentage.

A. 33 1/2 % B. 33
C. 40% D. 42%
Ans: A

73. An article when sold at a gain of 5% yields 15Rs more than when sold at a loss of 5%. What is the CP?
Ans: c

74. A bag contains 50paise and 10paise coins in the ratio 5:9:4,
amounting to 206Rs. Find the number of coins of each type?

A. 50paise coins 200
25paise coins 360
10paise coins 160
B. 50paise coins 200
25paise coins 360
10paise coins 361
C. 50paise coins 100
25paise coins 260
10paise coins 160
D. 50paise coins 250
25paise coins 300
10paise coins 160
Ans: A

75. A started a business with 21000Rs and is joined afterwards by B with 36000. After how many months did B join if the profits at
the end of the year are divided equally?

A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 D. 8
Ans: A

76. If 5 men can work for 9hrs a day in 16days in how many days will 18men can do the work?
A. 16 B. 14
C. 13 D. 15
Ans: D

77. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18days. In how many days will A alone finish the

A. 26 B. 23
C. 27 D. 28
Ans: c

78.A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’s wage for 4 days and
B’s wage for 28days. The same money is sufficient to pay wages for
both A and B

A. 12days B. 13
C. 14 D. 10
Ans: A

79. 2 pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24mins and 32 min respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time B should be closed so that tank is full in 18min?
A. 18min B. 6
C. 4 D. 10
Ans: A

80. Walking 5/6th of its usual speed, a train is 10min too late. Find its usual time to cover the journey.

A. 45min B. 50
C. 25 D. 32

Ans: B

Wipro interview questions in 2008 for freshers

41. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3

A. 22/62 B. 15/46
C. 2/3 D. 1

Ans: B

42.Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively. How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quntities of
band c are equal

A.70,15,15 B.50,25,25
C.60,20,20 D.40,30,30

Ans. B

43. In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years. 15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
A. 30 B. 33
C. 36 D. none of these.

Ans. D

44. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the
speed of the stream ?

A. 13 km/hr B. 26 km/hr
C. 34 km/hr D. none of these

Ans. A

45. Find the value of
(0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 – 0.001) / (0.75 * 0.75 – 0.075 + 0.01)

A. 0.845 B. 1.908
C. 2.312 D. 0.001
Ans. A

47. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three
times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A.
How many days will they take to do the work together?

A. 3 days B. 8/9 days
C. 4 days D. can’t say

Ans. B

48. The smallest number which when diminished by 3 is divisible
by 21, 28, 36 & 45 is …

A. 423 B. 1257
C. 1263 D. 1260

Ans: C

49.A meter is taken to be equal to 39.3701 inches. If the value
is approximated to 39 7/20 inches. The relative % error is …

A. 5 B. 0.5
C. 0.05 D. 0.005

Ans : C

50.In a certain office 1/3 of the workers are women, ½ of the
women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children.
If ¾ of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have
children, what part of workers are without children

A. 5/18 B. 4/9
C. 11/18 D. 17/36

Ans: C

51.The avg of kiran’s marks in 7 subjects is 75.His avg in 6 subjects excluding Science is 72. How many marks did i he get in Science

A. 72 B. 93
C. 96 D.none

Ans: B

52. If A’s income is 33% more than that of B then how much % is B’s income less than that of A

A.25 B.23
C.24.6 D.24.8

Ans: D

53. For a sphere of radius 10 cm, the numerical value of surface
area is what % of the numerical value of its volume

A. 24 B. 26.5
C. 30 D. 45

Ans: C

54. An article when sold at a gain of 5% is yield a Rs 50 more than when sold at a loss of 5%.What is the cost price

A. 64 B. 80
C. 150 D. 200

Ans: C

55.20 lts of a mixture contains milk & water in the ratio 5:3. If
4 lts of this mixture is replaced by 4 lts of milk,the ratio of milk
to water in the new mixture will become

A. 7:3 B. 7:2
C. 8:3 D. 4:3

Ans: A

56.A and B can do a piece of work in 5 days. B and C can do it in 7 days. A and C can do it in 4 days. Who among this will take the
least time if put to do it alone

A. A B. B
C. C D. data not sufficient

57.A car covers 4 successive 3km stretches at speeds of 10kmph, 20kmph,30kmph and 60kmph respectively. Its avg speed(kmph) over this distance is

A. 40 B. 25
C. 30 D. 20
Ans: D

58.The output of the following program

  int i; 
  float *pf; 
  pf = (float *)&i; 
 *pf = 100.00; 
  printf("\n %d", i); 

A. Runtime error. B. 100
C. Some Integer not 100 D. None of the above
Ans: D

59. main() 
  int i, j, *p; 
   i = 25; 
   j = 100; 
   p = &i; // Address of i is assigned to pointer p 
  printf("%f", i/(*p) ); // i is divided by pointer p 

A. Runtime error. B. 1.00000
C. Compile error D. 0.00000
Ans: C


   if ((1||0) && (0||1)) 
  printf("OK I am done."); 
 printf("OK I am gone."); 

A. OK I am done B. OK I am gone
C. compile error D. none of the above

Ans: A