NDA Elnglish Language Solved Paper | NDA Elnglish Language Objective Type Questions | National Defence Academy Exam Sample Questions

Solved paper of National Defence Academy Exam held on April 4, 2004

Directions (For the following 6 items): Each of the following Six sentences has a blank space and four words or groups of words are given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select the word or group of words which you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and mark your choice on the Answer Sheet. 1. To the dismay of all the students, the class monitor was _____berated by the Principal at a school assembly.
(a) critically
(b) ignominiously
(c) prudently
(d) fortuitously
2. All attempts to revive the fishing industry
(a) foredoomed to
(b) heading at
(c) predicted for
(d) estimated to
3. There are_____parked outside than yesterday.
(a) fewer cars
(b) few cars
(c) less cars
(d) a small number of cars
4. The minister had to_____some awkward questions from reporters.
(a) fend
(b) fend at
(c) fend out
(d) fend off
5. The_____of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff since all but one of the witnesses testified that his story was correct.
(a) propensity
(b) force
(c) preponderance
(d) brunt
6. Attention to detail is_____of a fine craftsman.
(a) hallmark (b) stamp
(c) seal of authority (d) authenticity
Directions (For the following 5 items): (i) In this Section a number of sentences is given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child(a) singed(b) a very sweet song.(c) No error.(d)
Q. We worked(a) very hard(b) throughout the season.(c)
No error.(d)
In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error.
7. If it weren’t(a) for you,(b) I wouldn’t be alive today.(c) No error.(d)
8. He looked like a lion(a) baulked from(b) its prey.(c) No error.(d)
9. Widespread flooding(a) is effecting(b) large areas of the villages.(c) No error.(d)
10. She regards(a) negotiating prices with customers(b) as her special preserve.(c) No error.(d)
11. Often in political campaigns, a point is reached at
which(a) the candidates take out their gloves(b) and start
slugging with bare fists.(c) No error.(d)
Directions (For the following 5 items): In the following passage at certain points, you are given a choice of three words/phrases, underlined and marked (a),
(b), (c). Choose the best word/phrase out of the three and indicate your choice in the relevant column of your Answer Sheet. Examples ‘K’ and ‘L’ have been solved for you.
K. The river has been
(a) rising
(b) raising
(c) arising
all night.
L. We built the raft
(a) too strong
(b) very strong
(c) strong enough to hold us.
Out of the list given in ‘K’, only ‘rising’ is the correct answer because a river cannot be raised, it rises on its own. So (a) is the correct answer for item ‘K’. For item ‘L’, (c) is the correct answer.
Read the passage carefully before you make your choices. It hasn’t worked
12. (a) by
(b) out
(c) off
that way. Indeed, the gaps between theory and reality are so numerous that they
13. (a) raise
(b) arise
(c) rise
questions about how much, if at all, the theory will work in the future. Americans projected their own experience onto the rest of the world. If prosperity and material progress had created political cohesion at home—binding together a large and
14. (a) ethically diverse
(b) ethnically diverse
(c) ethnically wide
nation—it could do the same abroad. But this marriage between economics and politics may be losing its power. What seemed to be the ascendancy of American ideas camouflaged new problems and conflicts. The theory may have been
15. (a) better
(b) aptly
(c) much
suited to the cold war than its aftermath. The most
16. (a) conspicuous
(b) conscientious
(c) conscious
problem, of course, involves the outbreak of terrorism.
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in
capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.
Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word in capital letters.
(a) Intimidate (b) Humiliate
(c) Predict (d) Postpone
(a) Original (b) Detestable
(c) Preferable (d) Complimentary
(a) Cancel (b) Enjoy
(c) Praise (d) Receive
(a) Pathetic (b) Tiresome
(c) Guarantee (d) Magnanimous
(a) Novice (b) Dishonest
(c) Futuristic (d) Traditional
(a) Skill (b) Softness (c) Charm (d) Gist
(a) Enthusiasm (b) Candidness
(c) Discipline (d) Fairness
Directions (For the following 7 items):
Each of the following Seven items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
24. SAGE
(a) Miser (b) Fool
(c) Traitor (d) Tyrant
(a) Adversary (b) Callow
(c) Social outcast (d) Experienced person
(a) Predicament (b) Afterthought
(c) Aversion (d) Postponement
(a) Strong-willed (b) Open-minded
(c) Well-informed (d) Well-to-do
(a) Criticism (b) Purity
(c) Ambiguous (d) Accolades
(a) Penetrating (b) Modern
(c) Dull (d) Similarity
(a) Not brilliant (b) Not coherent
(c) Not deceptive (d) Not obvious
Directions (For the following 5 items): In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet. Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R Q P S (b) P Q R S
(c) Q P R S (d) R P S Q
The proper sequence in this example is R Q P S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. 31. S1 : A city tour organised by the airport got our next vote.
S6 : “We can only grow in height as most of our land is reclaimed from the mud brought from neighbouring countries”, said Bernadette. P : A bumboat ride through the Singapore River gave us a vantage view of the country’s prized possession of skyscrapers in the central business district.
Q : The tour is very popular with transit passengers and there are many such buses doing the route.
R : We were greeted into an air-conditioned Volvo bus with a bottle of chilled water.
S : On the drive through the ‘colonial heart’ of the city, our guide, Bernadette, pointed out the Parliament House, Supreme Court and City Hall to us.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
32. S1 : But Bhutan is a curious mix of modern and the medieval.
S6 : His licence plate reads simply ‘BHUTAN’.
P : It was next to a speed limit sign : 8 km an hour.
Q : Even the king zips through in a navy blue Toyota Land Cruiser.
R : I noticed a rusty sign for the Kit Kat chocolate bar and realised it was the only advertisement I had seen.
S : Yet in the cities, most middle class people drive brand new Japanese cars. The proper sequence should be:
(a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q
(c) S P R Q (d) R Q S P
33. S1 : His usually fretful features composed, Javagal Srinath announced his retirement from international cricket.
S6 : He finished with 236 wickets in 67 Tests and 315 in 229 One-day Internationals.
P : He had spent the early years of his 13-year career sitting out nine Tests when he was at his quickest, being reminded of everything he was not.
Q : In a classic case of appreciating a good thing when it is gone, the tributes poured in for India’s most successful pace bowler after Kapil Dev.

R : Not aggressive enough, not a non-vegetarian, not an all-rounder.
S : Srinath soldiered on, whether wickets were flat
or causes lost, as they often were when India toured.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P R S (b) R S Q P
(c) Q S R P (d) R P Q S
34. S1 : However, the flower industry also has its share of thorns.
S6 : Also, there are not tax concessions from the government.
P : Most companies have to individually invest in the transport, which is very costly.
Q : Then there are infrastructural bootlenecks—no refrigerated transport or retail chains and warehouses to store the highly perishable commodity.
R : For one, it is extremely fragmented and dominated by small players who don’t have the financial muscle to expand the business. S : Ferns & Petals claims to be the only flower retailer with a multi-city presence in India. The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S R P (b) R P Q S
(c) Q P R S (d) R S Q P
35. S1 : One could well be forgiven for momentarily confusing Spencer Plaza, Chennai, with a Dubai Shopping Mall. S6 : Sensing that healthcare plus tourism adds to big opportunities, corporate hospitals, in cooperation with tour operators, are promoting India as a healthcare destination from the Middle East to Far East.
P : Having satiated their shopping instincts, many head back, not to a hotel, but to a hospital, and to ailing relatives.
Q : Arabs pour in and out of trendy showrooms, laden with bags full of branded clothes, footwear and cosmetics.
R : It is a scenario being replicated across India.
S : For these are tourists with a difference, attracted to India for its cutting edge medical expertise more than its charms.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q P S R (b) S R Q P
(c) Q R S P (d) S P Q R
Directions (For the following 5 items) In the following items some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you. Z. It is well known that the effect(P) is very bad(Q) on children(R) of cinema.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) S P Q R
(c) S R P Q (d) Q S R P
The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘It is well known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.’ This is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
36. Brazil’s Guaranis from being Internet savvy(P) are an ancient tribe who live in the country’s remote jungles,(Q) excluded them(R) but that has not.(S) The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q R S P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q S R P
37. A game host that could be used at the airport dutyfree shops(P) and the winner walked away with(Q) shot out ten witty questions(R) vouchers worth 200 Singapore dollars.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S Q R (b) R Q S P
(c) P Q S R (d) R S Q P
38. And while without adequate international support(P) the US military has been forced into remaining in Iraq(Q) the overthrow of Saddam Hussein may have been quick,(R) longer than anticipated.(S) The proper sequence should be:
(a) R S Q P (b) P Q S R
(c) R Q S P (d) P S Q R
39. The socialist philosophy as it is the market philosophy(P) has been given a decent burial(Q) which is the rage now(R) in political practice.(S) The proper sequence should be:
(a) Q S P R (b) R P S Q
(c) Q P S R (d) R S P Q
40. It began as an officially sanctioned project, could achieve as a nation(P) but turned into a mass movement and an extraordinary act of faith,(Q) if it got its act together,(R) which changed not just the lives of millions but the notions of what India.(S)
The proper sequence should be:
(a) P S R Q (b) Q S R P
(c) P R S Q (d) Q R S P
Directions (For the following 10 items): In this Section you have Three short passages. After each passage you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read Passage—I, and answer the questions based on it. Then go on to the other passages. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The author’s main point is that:
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is ‘peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings’, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace’, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
I was late bloomer and always envied those people who stood out in high school, because I didn’t. I learned early on, though, that it’s essential to set yourself apart from the group. Life is one struggle after another to succeed, particularly when you’re starting out. If your bio-data is sitting at the bottom of a pile of junk mail, sometimes a distinctive approach will get you noticed, especially if the competition is fierce. Once, my partner Jerry and I asked the other freelance writers of a TV serial what characters they hated to write for the most. Everybody said the same thing—they disliked writing for the minor characters because they felt that writing for them wouldn’t help them get other jobs. Jerry and I decided that we would write scripts for the minor characters because that’s what was needed—and we needed to set ourselves apart.
In the first script Jerry and I wrote, a schoolgirl falls in love with a boy in her class. The producers loved the story. And with that one script, Jerry and I were no longer just another comedy-writing team.
41. The author is of the opinion that
(a) one should be part of the group
(b) one should be different from others
(c) it is important to do well in high school
(d) one should heed to the advice of the seniors
42. The author had been
(a) into advertising business
(b) a comedy writer
(c) a music director
(d) a newsreader
43. According to the author
(a) one should be very meticulous in preparing his bio-data
(b) competition in the job-market is very fierce
(c) One should follow a conservative approach in preparing his bio-data
(d) one should try to get noticed by being innovative
44. Jerry and the author wrote scripts for the minor characters
(a) to realize their creative potential
(b) to earn more money
(c) to establish a different image
(d) because they did not have enough work

Wind power has obvious advantages—it is nonpolluting, causes no ecological imbalance, requires no throughput fuel and has extremely low gestation period. After almost a decade of sporadic growth, wind energy finally seems to be stepping out from shadows of alternative technology into the commercial mainstream, worldwide. Even though, India now has an installed base of just over 1,600 MW. This is nothing compared to countries such as Germany, which meets around 20 per cent of its energy requirements from wind energy.
Wind power offers long-term price stability too. Not only are generation costs of such projects low, the capital expenditure is comparable to fossil fuel-based stations. Windpower plants have low operating and maintenance costs. Long-term economics work out to be quite favourable for the wind-energy. In fact, it is being seen as a solution to sustainable development. By the end of 2001, the installed wind-power was almost 25,000 MW.
45. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Wind-power plants take a long time to get commissioned.
(b) Maintenance cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Wind-power plants lead to violent vibrations.
(d) Wind-power plants require no fuel.
46. Which one of the following is correct?
a) Installation of wind-power plants is resisted by environmentalists.
(b) Generation cost of wind-power plants is high.
(c) Installation cost of wind-power plants is much higher than that of fossil fuel-based plants.
(d) Wind-power is now being commercially harnessed.
47. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) In Germany, 25,000 MW of electricity is generated by using wind-power.
(b) Wind-power plants offer no price stability.
(c) Wind-power is economically viable on longterm
(d) In America, 20% of the power requirements are met through wind-power.
A group of prospective jurors was asked by the judge whether any of them felt they had ever been treated unfairly by an officer of the law. “I once got a ticket for running a stop sign”, Caroline replied, ”even though I definitely came to a complete stop.” “Did you pay the fine?” the judge questioned. “Yes”. “If you thought you were innocent”, the judge went on, “why didn’t you contest it?” “Your Honour”, she replied, “there have been so many times I didn’t get a ticket for running a stop sign that I figured this evened things out a little.”
48. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline was caught travelling without ticket in a local train.
(b) Caroline was caught while driving at a speed above the speed limit.
(c) Caroline was driving without a driving license.
(d) Caroline was fined for jumping the stop signal.
49. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline made a complaint against the traffic inspector for his high-handedness.
(b) Caroline had to pay a bribe.
(c) Caroline was sent to the jail for her crime.
(d) Caroline decided to pay the fine.
50. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Caroline had been penalised many times before for driving offences.
(b) Caroline was an officer of the law.
(c) Caroline was a prospective juror.
(d) Caroline was undergoing police training.

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) ‘you’ 8. (b) ‘baulked at’ 9. (b) ‘is affecting’ 10. (d) No error 11. (a) ‘…..a point is reached where’ 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (c)

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