ICET – 2006


ICET Results








Commencement of sale of applicatiobn forms : 02-03-2006
Last date for the sale & receipt of filled in applications (without late fee) : 04-04-2006 by 5-00 p.m.
Last date for the sale & receipt of filled in applications (with a late fee or Rs.400/-
through D.D. in favour of Secretary, APSCHE, Payable at Hyderabad) : 11-04-2006 ny 5.00 p.m.
Date and time of Entrance Test : Rs.200/-

Candidates indulging in IMPERSONATION are liable for prosecution, inviting a punishment of imprisonment for 3 to 7 years with or without fine ranging from Rs.5,000/- to Rs. 20,000/-.

In case of non-receipt of Original Hall Ticket will be issued to the candidate by the Convener at his office or by the Chief Superintendent of the test centre concerned to which the candidate is allotted, two days before the entrance test during office hours on production of the following:

1. Acknowledgement Card.
2. Two Passport size photographs duly attested by Gazetted Officer with stamp.
3. Demand Draft for Rs.50/- (Rupees fifty only) drawn in favour of the Convener,ICET – 2006,Payable at any Nationalised Bank in Warangal.


a) Qualifying Marks for ICET – 2006 : The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test is 30% (i.e., 60 marks out of total 200 marks). However, for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, no minimum qualifying percentage of marks is prescribed.

b) Ranking : Candidates will be given state – wide ranks in the order of merit at the ICET – 2006. For the preparation of merit list. In case more than one student scores the same marks at ICET, the tie will be resolved as follows:

By considering the marks scored in Section – A.
If the tie Persists, marks obtained by a student in Section – B will be taken into consideration.
If the tie still persists, the tie will be taking into account the age of the candidate giving the older candidate priority.
Rank obtained in ICET – 2006 is valid for admission into MBA/MCA Course (Full Time / Part Time / Evening / Distance Mode) of all universities in Andhra Pradesh for the academic year 2006 – 2007 only.
Evaluation : Every care will be taken to avoid errors in the evaluation, checking, security, tabulation and ranking. However, request for re-verification will be entertained on payment of Rs. 1000/- by D.D. drawn in favour of the Convener, Icet-2006, Payable at any Nationalised Bank in Warangal, within (15) days from the date of declaration of results. After this date no request will be entertained.
Rank Card will be sent to the candidate by post. Duplicate Rank Card will be issued on payment of Rs.50/- by D.D. drawn in favour of the Convener, ICET – 2006, payable at any Nationalised Bank in Warangal.

The candidates should preserve the Hall Ticket and Rank Card which will have to be produced for verification at the time of admission.

The answer scripts of candidates taking the ICET – 2006 will be preserved for six months from the date of announcement of ICET – 2006 results.


General Information:The test is designed to measure the candidate’s ability to think systematically, to employ the verbal and mathematical skills and to assess his/her aptitude for admission into MBA?MCA programme. The Test emphasies accuracy. Therefore, the candidate is required to go through the instructions carefully. This is an objective type test and the questions are of multiple choice. Out of the given options, the candidate has to choose the correct answer. If the Candidate gives more than one answer to any question, such answers will be ignored while awarding marks.

PATTERN OF THE TEST: The test consists of 200 questions of 1 mark each in the following topics:


Section – A :
Analytical Ability

1. Problem Solving
2. Data Sufficiency

Section-B:Mathematical Ability

1. Arithmetical Ability
2. Algebrical and Geometrical Ability

3. Statistical Ability

Section-C:Communication Ability

1. Vocabulary
2. Business and Computer Technology
3. Functional Grammer
4. Reading Comprehension

No of Questions


Candidates are directed to carry to the examines hall the following.
1. Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black).
2. One or Two HB Pencils.
3. Eraser (Rubber): and
4. Sharpener.
Besides the items listed above, the candidate should not bring any other material including the instructions booklet into the examination hall. Candidates should not bring Papers. Cell Phones etc., into the examination hall. Any candidate found in possession of any forbiden material, will be sent out of the examination hall.
Candidates must remain seated in their alloted places till the completion of the examination. In no case they will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the examination. Before leaving the examination hall, the candidates must return to the invigilator both the question paper booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet.
Every candidate appearing for ICET – 2006 shall be provided with a specially designed Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet on which the candidate has to mark the answers and other relevant data. The method of marking the answers is illustrated in this section. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions given for markingh the answers and other entries on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet thoroughly and practice the same at their residence which should make it easy for them to answer in the examination hall.
The Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet should be handled carefully by the candidates. They are advised not to told, wrinkle or tear the answer sheet under any circumstances. Further, the candidates are advised not to scribble or make any marks on the answer sheet except marking the answers and other relevant data at the appropriate place on the answer sheet. Any violation of these instructions will automatically lead to disqualification of the candidate.
Candidates shall note that they will not be given a second blank Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet under any circumstance. Hence they are advised to be careful while handling their answer sheet.
Candidates shall read carefully the instructions before starting to answer the questions.
The question paper booklet given to the candidate shall consist of 200 multiple choice type questions in three different sections with four responses given to each question, out of which only one response is correct for the given question. Candidates shall mark the correct answer in Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circle with HB Pencil. They should not use Ball Point Pen for this purpose under any circumstance.

Instructions to fill up OMR answer sheet:

1. Follow the Instructions given on the OMR answer sheet. Fill up information and darken all the relevant circles on the OMR answer sheet carefully, otherwise your answer sheet will become invalid.

2. Use HB Pencil only for darkening the cirlces for information and asnwering on the answer sheet. Use Ball Point Pen whereever directed on the answer sheet to write information.


3. Please darken the most appropriate response chosen by you, only in the corresponding circle against the number corresponding to the question, you are attempting.

4. Please do not make any stray marks ELSEWHERE on the Answer Sheet. ELSE the Answer Sheet will become invalid.

5. If you wish to change an answer, Please ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened circle and then darken a new circle.


Section – A : Analytical Ability : 75Q (75 Marks)

1 . Data Sufficiency: 20Q (20 Marks)

A question is given followed by data in the form of two statements labelled as I and II. If the data given in I alone is sufficient to answer the question then choice (1) is the correct answer. If the data given in II alone is sufficient to answer the question the choice (2) is the correct answer. If both I and II put together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient, then choice (3) is the correct answer. If both I and II put together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data is needed, then choice (4) is the correct answer.

Prom Solving 55Q(55M)ble

a) Sequences and Series 25Q(25M)

Analogies of numbers and alphabets, completion of blank spaces following the pattern in a:b::c:d relationship; odd thing out: missing number in a sequence or a series.

b) Data Analysis 10Q(10M)

The data given in a Table, Graph, Bar diagram, Pie Chart, Venn Diagram or a passage is to be analysed and the questions pertaining to the data are to be answered.

Coding and Decoding Problems 10Q(10M)

A code pattern of English Alphabet is given. A given word or a group of letters are to be coded or decoded based on the given code or codes.

Date, Time & Arrangement Problems 10Q (10M)

Calender problems, Clock Problems, blood relationships, arrivals, departures and schedules: seating arrangements, symbol and notation interpretation.

Section-B : Mathematical Ability : 75Q (75M)

1 . Arithmetical Ability: 35Q (35M)

Laws of indices, ratio and proportion; surds; numbers and divisibility, 1.c.m. and g.c.d; Rational numbers,; Ordering; Percentages; Profit and loss; Partnerships, Pipes and cistems, time, distance and work problems, areas, and volumes, mensuration, Modular Arithmetical.

II. Algebrical and Geometrical Ability 30 Q (30M)

Statements, Truth tables, implication, converse and inverse, Tautologies-Sets, Relations and functions, applications, Equation of a line in different forms. Trignometry – Trigonometric ratios, Trigonometric ratios of standard angles (0°,30°,45°,60°,90°,180° Trignometric identities: simple problems on heights and distances Polynomials; Remainder theorem and consequences; Linear equations and expressions; Progressions, Binomal Theorem, Matrices, Notion of a limit and derivative Plane geometry-lines, Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Coordinate geometry-distance between points and

III. Statistical Ability : 10Q(10M)

Frequency distributions, Mean, Median, Mode, Standard Deviations, Correlation, Simple Problems on Probability

Section – C : Communication Ability : 50Q(50M)

Objectives of the Test

Candidates will be assessed on their ability to

Identity vocabulary used in the day-to-day communication.
Understand the functional use of grammer in day-to-day communication as well as in the business contexts.
Identify the basic terminology and concepts in computer and business contexts (letters, reports, memoranda, agenda, minutes etc.)
Understand written text and drawing inferences.

Part 1: Vocabulary 10Q (10M)

Part 2: Business and computer terminology 10Q (10M)

Part 3: Functional Grammer

Part 4: Reading Comprehension (3 Passages) 15Q (15M)


Section A : Analytical Ability:

What is the Present age of the father?
1. The Present age of his son is 15 years
2. The ratio of the ages of father and son five yeats age is 7:2
What is the value of X4 + 1/X4
1. X + 1/X = 5
2. X is a real number
The missing number in the sequence is 26,37,46,____, 66,77,86
1. 47
2. 53
3. 55
4. 57
ABC : GHI :: JKL : _______________
1. OPQ
2. PQR
3. QRS
4. RST
64 : 125 :: _____27
1. 8
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
In a code each letter of English alphabet is shifted backwards to four places cyclically like EOV……A O W and so on. The word code as ZKYPKN is
1. Doctor
2. Letter
3. Killer
4. Former
Find the odd thing out
1. 111
2. 2222
3. 33333
4. 444
A clock strikes once at 10° clock: thrice at 30° clock and so on. The total number of strokes that the clock strikes in 24 hours is
1. 156
2. 256
3. 288
4. 300
9.The ratio of professionals to teachers is
1. 2:3
2. 1:3
3. 3:2
4. 3:1
10.If 1980 were engaged in labour, how many were unemployed?
1. 2540
2. 2680
3. 2640
4. 2460

Section B : Mathematical Ability

11.If a person buys 5 pens at Rs. 9/- each and another 5 pens at Rs. 13/- each and sold all the 10 pens at Rs 12/- each then the percentage of profit is
1. 10
2. 11
3. 100/11
4. 9
12.The average monthly salary per head of all workers in a factory is Rs. 950. The average monthly salary per head of 15 officers among them is Rs. 5250. The average monthly salary of the rest is Rs. 850. The total number of workers in the factory is
1. 650
2. 660
3. 630
4. 670
13.The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio of 5:4. If its perimeter is 360 meters then its area in square meters is
1. 400
2. 4000
3. 8000
4. 8200
14.A certain amount of money given on compound interest becomes Rs.2420/- in two years and Rs . 2662/- in three years. The rate of interest is
1. 5%
2. 8%
3. 12%
4. 10%
15.Let p=”He is hard working” and q=”He will win”, then the statement. “He is not hard working and he will not win” in symbollic form is
1. pCEq
2. (-p)v(-q)
3. (-(-p)v(-q)
4. (-p)CE(-q)
16.The coefficient of X4 in the expansion of (1+X)7 is
1. 35
2. 28
3. 24
4. 21
17.The fifth term of a G.P. is 162 and its eighth term is 4274. Its first term is
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
18.If A={-1,0}/<0,-1} then A3-A2= 1. A 2. -A 3. 2A 4. -2A 19. 1/sin 60° + cos 60°= 1. 1/2 sqrt(3+1) 2. sqrt(3+1) 3. 1/2 sqrt(3-1) 4. 1/2 sqrt(3+1) 20. Probability of getting an even number on a throw of dice is 1. 1/6 2. 1/2 3. 1/3 4. 1/4 Section C : Communication Ability

Part 1

Choose the correct meaning for the word Scorch means
1. to peal
2. to rub
3. to burn
4. to pour

Charisma means
1. Speciman Charm
2. fashion
3. good character
4. charity

Animosity means

1. love of animals
2. to be like animals
3. hostility
4. hatred

Celebrity means
1. to celebrate
2. famous person
3. to select a person
4. a person who celebrates

2.Fill in the blanks choosing the correct word
1. waiter bring me a____________cup of coffee
1. thick
2. strong
3. heavy
4. solid
2. I drove through ___________traffic
1. strong
2. heavy
3. big
4. solid

Part 2

Choose the correct answer
1. ‘Minutes’ is a document which is given to the members.
1. before
2. after
3. during
4. after one year of the meeting
2. A ‘broker’ is
1. someone who breaks a promise
2. someone working between the buyer and the seller
3. a banker
4. someone who deals in broken things
3. A ‘memo’ is
1. an inter departmental communication
2. a threatening letter
3. a random note
4. a note to be mentioned
4. ‘Assets’ means
1. a set of things
2. everything a business person owns
3. everything a person owns
4. everything a person promised to pay
5. CD means
1. composing disk
2. compact disk
3. compact desk
4. comparable disk
6. ‘Program’ means
1. a sequence of events
2. games on computer
3. a set of special instructions
4. general entertainment
7. ‘Logo’ refers to
1. patented symbol
2. a special language
3. logging in data
4. logically

Part 3

Choose the correct answer
1. ‘How are you?’ This is
1. a question
2. an enquiry
3. a greeting
4. an expression showing anxiety
2. ‘Can I borrow your pen?’ The speaker is
1. asking a question
2. expressing doubt
3. making a statement
4. making a request
3. A: It’s very difficult to give up smoking
B: If I were you I would try it once
1. B is making a suggestion
2. B wants to be like A
3. B was like A
4. B wants to give up smoking
4. Fill in the blank with the appropriate verb
1. If you………….to be successfull in life, work hard
1. want
2. wanted
3. will want
4. wanting
2. They were all………..a film on the TV
1. seeing
2. watching
3. looking at
4. observing

Part 4

Read the followin passage and answer questions 1-5

If people who commit crimes are not punished, they will go on committing crimes. We have therefore, a police force for investigating crimes and apprehending criminals. In the same way, if there are disputes among persons over property, contracts, rights, and other matters, they have to be decided in a court of law. These are called civil cases and are decided by the law courts according to the civil law. Cases of crime are dealt with according to the civil law. It is not easy to find out whether a person accused of committing a crime is really guilty. So in every such case evidence has to be produced to show whether he did or did not commit the crime. In civil cases also each party to a case has to produce evidence to prove its claim. The process of administering justice is quite complicated, but if justice is not done, there will be great disorder.
1. A police force is necessary because it
1. settles disputes among persons
2. decides civil cases
3. inquires into crimes and arrests criminals
4. punishes those who commit crimes
2. Civil cases are decided by
1. the police
2. the civil courts
3. the public
4. the administration
3. To find out if the accussed is guilty, we need
1. the evidence
2. the decision of the court
3. the criminal law
4. the administration
4. A Person is adjudged guilty if there is
1. a case against him
2. an accusation against him
3. an evidence against him
4. an arrest warrant against him
5. “The process of administering justice is quite complicated, but if justice is not done, there will be great disorder”. The above sentence implies that
1. disorder results in the process of administering justice
2. disorder is created because justice is administered in a complicated way
3. absence of justice leads to disorder
4. the cause of disorder is always absence of justice

If you have questions, please ask below


  1. palla lakshmi prasanna says:

    I wrote 2011 icet im getting 110 marks after i checked the answers so will u plz let me know tht wht rank can i expect and in which college can i get ceat for mca and plz list out some of the good colleges having the best place ment so tht during my counsellind i can opt them without any confusion and my category is “bc-d”

  2. Ravi kiran says:

    U can get rank below 2000 and under girls quota u can get the best college like OU.

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