DUMET 2011 Question Paper With Answers

DUMET 2011 Question Paper With Answers

BIOLOGY
1. The most important factor which determined the increase in human population in India during the 20th century:
(1) Natality (2) Mortality
(3) Immigration (4) Emigration
Ans. (1)
2. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because:
(1) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
(2) There are no vessels with perforations
(3) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
(4) There is no secondary growth
Ans. (4)
3. When there are two haploid nuclei per cell in some fungi before the formation of diploid, this stage is called:
(1) Diplotene (2) Diplophase
(3) Dikaryophase (4) Dikaryote
Ans. (3)
4. In blood group typing in human, if an allele contributed by one parent is IA and an allele contributed by the other parent is i, the resulting blood group of the offspring will be:
(1) A (2) B
(3) AB (4) O
Ans. (1)
5. A population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows four phases of growth in the following sequence:
(1) Acceleration – deceleration – lag phase – asymptote
(2) Asymptote – acceleration – deceleration – lag phase
(3) Lag phase – acceleration – deceleration – asymptote
(4) Acceleration – lag phase – deceleration – asymptote
Ans. (3)
6. Necrosis in crops is due to the deficiency of:
(1) Ca, K, S and Mo (2) N, K, S and Mo
(3) N, S, Fe and Zn (4) Mg, S, Mn and Ca
Ans. (4)

7. Presence of bundle sheath is a characteristic of:
(1) Xerophytic plants
(2) Members of the grass family
(3) C4 plants
(4) C3 plants
Ans. (2)
8. Which one of the following would not lead to formation of clones?
(1) Double fertilization
(2) Apomixis
(3) Vegetative reproduction
(4) Tissue culture
Ans. (1)
9. A plant species which has been exploited for the production of Hirudin is:
(1) Brassica napus (2) Zea mays
(3) Solanun nigrum (4) Oryza sativa
Ans. (1)
10. The variation/difference in the offsprings of a species from their parents constitutes an important component of:
(1) Genetics (2) Speciation
(3) Species fixation (4) Heredity
Ans. (1)
11. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured flowers will be:
(1) Both homozygous
(2) One homozygous and other heterozygous
(3) Both heterozygous
(4) Both hemizygous
Ans. (3)
12. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a doublestranded
DNA is 60% the amount of guanine in this DNA
will be
(1) 15% (2) 20%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
Ans. (2)
13. The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes
cryIAc and cryIIAb are responsible for controlling:
(1) Bollworm (2) Roundworm
(3) Moth (4) Fruit fly
Ans. (1)
14. In a flowering plant, the pollen tube first arrives in:
(1) Egg (2) An antipodal cell
(3) A synergid (4) Central cell
Ans. (3)
15. A peculiar odor that prevails in marshy areas and cowsheds is on account of a gas produced by:
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Archaebacteria
(3) Slime moulds (4) Cyanobacteria
Ans. (2)
16. A germplasm collection is a:
(1) Collection of specimens of all the species of an area
in a herbarium or botanical garden
(2) Collection of modern varieties of a crop
(3) Collection of plants or seeds having diverse alleles of all genes in a crop
(4) Collection of seeds or pollen of rare and threatened
species of a group or area
Ans. (3)
17. Walter Sutton is famous for this contribution to:
(1) Genetic engineering
(2) Totipotency
(3) Quantitative genetics
(4) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
Ans. (4)
18. The reaction, Amino acid + ATP Aminoacyl-AMP + PP depicts:
(1) Amino acid assimilation
(2) Amino acid transformation
(3) Amino acid activation
(4) Amino acid translocation
Ans. (3)
19. The problem of blindness in poor countries can be taken
care of by using the following:
(1) Golden rice (2) Transgenic tomato
(3) Transgenic maize (4) Bt brinjal
Ans. (1)
20. The transcription of any gene is the indication of its:
(1) Induction (2) Activity
(3) Stimulation (4) Hypersensitivity
Ans. (2)
21. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells:
(1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange
(2) Have large intercellular spaces
(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(4) Have a high density of chloroplasts
Ans. (4)
22. In root nodules of legumes, leg-haemoglobin is important because it:
(1) Transports oxygen to the root nodule
(2) Acts as an oxygen scavenger
(3) Provides energy to the nitrogen fixing bacterium
(4) Acts as a catalyst in transamination
Ans. (2)
23. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by:
(1) Ability to defend itself
(2) Strategy to obtain food
(3) Number of offspring
(4) Dominance over other individuals
Ans. (1)
24. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Pollen grains remain viable for several months because
their outer covering is made of sporopollenin
(2) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains are well represented in fossil strata due to sporopollenin
(4) Pollen wall has cavities containing proteins
Ans. (4)
25. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in:
(1) Protoplast isolation (2) Cell culture preparation
(3) Protoplast fusion (4) Hardening
Ans. (3)
26. A regulatory body working under MoEF for the release of transgenic crops is:
(1) NBPGR (2) GEAC
(3) NSC (4) NIPGR
Ans. (2)
27. Analogous structures are:
(1) Anatomically different but performing similar functions
(2) Anatomically similar but performing different functions
(3) Anatomically similar and functioning similarly
(4) Anatomically different and functioning differently
Ans. (1)
28. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross AaBbCcX AaBbCc, the phenotypic ratio of the offsprings was observed as:
1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1
What is the possible value of x?
(1) 3 (2) 9
(3) 15 (4) 25
Ans. (3)
29. A transgenic rice (Golden rice) has been developed for increased content of:
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
Ans. (1)
30. When the conditions are dry, a grass leaf curls inward to minimize water loss due to presence of:
(1) Thick cuticle (2) Large xylem cavities
(3) Parallel venation (4) Bulliform cells
Ans. (4)
31. Long, ribbon-like pollen grains are seen in some:
(1) Aquatic plants (2) Wind-pollinated grasses
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bird-pollinated flowers
Ans. (1)
32. At present the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is about:
(1) 100 ppm (2) 240 ppm
(3) 380 ppm (4) 520 ppm
Ans. (3)
33. Littoral zone is located along the :
(1) High mountains (2) Sea
(3) Rivers (4) Desert
Ans. (2)
34. Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?
(1) Bacillus subtilis (2) Bacillus licheniformis
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Bacillus anthracis
Ans. (4)
35. The chromosome constitution 2n – 2 of an organism represents:
(1) Monosomic (2) Nullisomic
(3) Haploid (4) Trisomic
Ans. (2)
36. Meristem culture is practised in horticulture to get:
(1) Somaclonal variation (2) Haploids
(3) Virus-free plants (4) Slow-growing callus
Ans. (3)
37. Tendrils in plants are an example of:
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Co-evolution
Ans. (1)
38. Leghemoglobin is:
(1) An oxygen carrier in human blood
(2) A protein used as food supplement
(3) An oxygen scavenger in root nodules
(4) A plant protein with high lysine content
Ans. (3)
39. Stomatal opening is affected by:
(1) Nitrogen concentration, carbon dioxide concentration and light
(2) Carbon dioxide concentration, temperature and light
(3) Nitrogen concentration, light and temperature
(4) Carbon dioxide concentration, nitrogen concentration and temperature
Ans. (2)
40. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to:
(1) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animal
(2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
(3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(4) Classification of a species based on fossil record
Ans. (1)
41. Which of the following get accumulated in the vacuoles of guard cells during stomatal opening?
(1) Water, calcium and magnesium
(2) Starch, potassium and chloride ions
(3) Malate, sodium and potassium ions
(4) Malate, potassium and chloride ions
Ans. (4)
42. Which of the following is the most accepted theory for movement of water through plants?
(1) Cohesion theory (2) Capilarity
(3) Passive transport (4) Root pressure
Ans. (1)
43. Scutellum in a caryopsis represents:
(1) Outermost layer of endosperm
(2) A sheath that protects that radicle
(3) The place where the seed is attached to raphe
(4) A cotyledon
Ans. (4)
44. In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as :
(1) Early wood (2) Late wood
(3) Heartwood (4) Sapwood
Ans. (1)
45. Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissues that are:
(1) Senescent (2) Dividing rapidly
(3) Storing food material (4) Differentiating
Ans. (2)
46. Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is:
(1) Mimicry (2) Predation
(3) Adaptation (4) Camouflage
Ans. (1)
47. Spirochetes are:
(1) A class of insects (2) A class of viruses
(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
Ans. (3)
48. The metachromatic granules are:
(1) Present in plant cells at metaphase stage
(2) Inclusion bodies in bacteria
(3) Produced in insects during metamorphosis
(4) Chromatophores in animal skin
Ans. (2,4)
49. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in the cells are because of the presence of:
(1) Mitochondria associated with ER
(2) Ribosomes on the surface of ER
(3) Volutin granules on the surface of ER
(4) Sulphur granules on the surface of ER
Ans. (2)
50. Elaioplasts store:
(1) Starch (2) Proteins
(3) Fats (4) Essential amino acids
Ans. (3)
51. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as:
(1) Villi (2) Peyer’s patches
(3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus
Ans. (2)
52. Mendel’s principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive:
(1) One pair of alleles
(2) One quarter of the genes
(3) One of the paired alleles
(4) Any pair of alleles
Ans. (3)
53. Rotenone is a:
(1) Bioherbicide
(2) Commonly used biofertilizer
(3) Bioinsecticide
(4) Juvenile hormone
Ans. (3)
54. Which of the following vitamins has some physiological effects similar to those of parathormone?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin B
Ans. (2)
55. Somatostatin:
(1) Stimulates glucagon release while inhibits insulin release
(2) Stimulates release of insulin and glucagon
(3) Inhibits release of insulin and glucagon
(4) Inhibits glucagon release while stimulates insulin release
Ans. (3)
56. Hiccups can be best described as:
(1) Forceful sudden expiration
(2) Jerky incomplete inspiration
(3) Vibration of the soft palate during breathing
(4) Sign of indigestion
Ans. (2)
57. ELISA assay:
(1) Uses complement mediated cells lysis
(2) Uses a radiolabelled second antibody
(3) Involves addition of substrate which is converted into coloured end product
(4) Requires red blood cells
Ans. (3)
58. “Complete competitors cannot coexist” is true for:
(1) Character displacement
(2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Primary succession
(4) Secondary succession
Ans. (2)
59. mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of:
(1) Introns (2) Codons
(3) Exons (4) Anticodons
Ans. (2)
60. Foramen ovale:
(1) Connects the two atria in the fetal heart
(2) Is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close
(3) Is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum
(4) Is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus
Ans. (1)
61. Which of the following is a gram-negative bacterium?
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Bacillus subtilis
(3) Streptomyces coelicolor
(4) Ampycolatopsis orientalis
Ans. (1)
62. What is meant by the term “Darwin fitness”?
(1) The ability to survive and reproduce
(2) High aggressiveness
(3) Healthy appearance
(4) Physical strength
Ans. (1)
63. Absence of one sex chromosome causes:
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Tay-Sach’s syndrome
Ans. (1)
64. Comparing small and large cells, which statement is correct?
(1) Small cells have a small surface area per volume ratio
(2) Exchange rate of nutrients is fast with large cells
(3) Small cells have a large surface area per volume ratio
(4) Exchange rate of nutrients is slow with small cells
Ans. (3)
65. Which one of the following animals shows discontinuous distribution?
(1) Green muscles (2) Bats
(3) Lung fishes (4) Pacific salmons
Ans. (3)
66. The number of autosomes in human primary spermatocyte is:
(1) 46 (2) 44
(3) 23 (4) 22
Ans. (2)
67. The most abundant molecule in cell is:
(1) Water (2) Carbohydrate
(3) Lipid (4) Protein
Ans. (1)
68. How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after S and after M phase respectively, if it has 14 chromosomes at inter phase?
(1) 14, 14, 7 (2) 14, 14, 14
(3) 7, 7, 7 (4) 7, 14, 14
Ans. (2)
69. The Golgi apparatus:
(1) Is found only in animals
(2) Is found in prokaryotes
(3) Is a site of rapid ATP production
(4) Modifies and packages proteins
Ans. (4)
70. Glycolysis:
(1) Takes place in the mitochondria
(2) Produces no ATP
(3) Has no connection with electron transport chain
(4) Reduces two molecules of NAD+ for every glucose molecule processed
Ans. (4)
71. Total number of all species of organisms in a given region is known as the region’s
(1) Biota (2) Flora
(3) Fauna (4) Diversity
Ans. (4)
72. The arthropod exoskeleton is composed of:
(1) Several kinds of polysaccharides
(2) Layers of proteins and a polysaccharide called chitin
(3) Several kinds of proteins
(4) Single complex protein called arthropodin
Ans. (2)
73. Which of the following groups is absolutely essential functional component of the ecosystem?
(1) Producers
(2) Producers and herbivores
(3) Producers and detritivores
(4) Detritivores
Ans. (3)
74. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively termed as:
(1) Endocytosis (2) Suspension feeding
(3) Omnivores (4) Mucous trap
Ans. (1)
75. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of:
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
(2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
(3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(4) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
Ans. (1)
76. Corpus luteum releases:
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen and progesterone
(4) Androgen
Ans. (3)
77. Which of the following organs is devoid of glands?
(1) Uterus (2) Vagina
(3) Vulva (4) Oviduct
Ans. (4)
78. Primary spermatocyte differs from spermatogonium in:
(1) Number of chromosomes
(2) Size and volume
(3) DNA content
(4) Size of chromosomes
Ans. (2)
79. In human, cleavage divisions are:
(1) Slow and synchronous
(2) Fast and synchronous
(3) Slow and asynchronous
(4) Fast and asynchronous
Ans. (3)
80. The basic unit of study in Ecology is:
(1) Population (2) Organism
(3) Community (4) Species
Ans. (2)
81. Chimera is produced due to:
(1) Somatic mutations (2) Reverse mutations
(3) Lethal mutations (4) Pleiotropic mutations
Ans. (1)
82. Maltose gives rise to 2 molecules of:
(1) Fructose (2) Lactose
(3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
Ans. (3)
83. In a lake, phytoplankton grow in abundance in:
(1) Littoral zone (2) Limnetic zone
(3) Profundal zone (4) Benthic region
Ans. (2)
84. Sigmoid growth curve is represented by:
(1) dN/dt = rN (2) dN/dt = rN (1–N/K)
(3) Nt = No+B+I–D–E (4) dN/dt = 1 – N/K
Ans. (2)
85. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that:
(1) Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
(2) Genes are made of DNA
(3) Genes carry information for making proteins
(4) Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information
Ans. (3)
86. DNA has equal number of adenine and thymine residues (A=T) and equal number of guanine and cytosine (G=C). These relationships are known as:
(1) Chargaff’s rule (2) Coulomb’s law
(3) Le Chatelier’s principle (4) Van’t Hoff plot
Ans. (1)
87. ‘Balancing selection’ promotes:
(1) Homozygotes (2) Heterozygotes
(3) Polyploids (4) Recessive traits
Ans. (2)
88. Vomiting centre is located in the:
(1) Medulla oblongata
(2) Stomach and sometimes in duodenum
(3) GI tract
(4) Hypothalamus
Ans. (1)
89. How many bio-geographical regions are present in India?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 10
Ans. (4)
90. Vital stains are employed to study:
(1) Living cells
(2) Frozen tissues
(3) Fresh tissues
(4) Preserved tissues
Ans. (1)
91. Which of the following organs in earthworm neutralizes humic acid present in humus?
(1) Typhosole (2) Calciferous glands
(3) Intestinal caecum (4) Gizzard
Ans. (2)
92. Fertilized eggs of P. americana are encased in:
(1) Ootheca (2) Cocoon
(3) Genital chamber (4) Phallomere
Ans. (1)
93. Insufficient quantities of antidiuretic hormone in blood lead to:
(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Glycosuria
(3) Diabetes insipidus (4) Uremia
Ans. (3)
94. Sphincter of Oddi guards:
(1) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(2) Common bile duct
(3) Pancreatic duct
(4) Cystic duct
Ans. (1)
95. Graveyard for RBCs is:
(1) Liver (2) Spleen
(3) Kidney (4) Lymph glands
Ans. (2)
96. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are:
(1) Basophils
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Monocytes
Ans. (1)
97. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes:
(1) One to each wrist and to the left ankle
(2) One to each ankle and to the left wrist
(3) One to each wrist and to the left chest region
(4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region
Ans. (1)
98. The clavicle articulates with …………. of scapula
(1) Acromion process
(2) Glenoid cavity
(3) Acetabulum cavity
(4) Ball and socket joint
Ans. (1)
99. The age of pyramid with broad base indicates “
(1) High percentage of young individuals
(2) Low percentage of young individuals
(3) High percentage of old individuals
(4) Low percentage of old individuals
Ans. (1)
100. Thymosin hormone is secreted by:
(1) Thyroid gland
(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Hypothalamus
Ans. (3)

Click Here To Download DUMET 2011 Question Paper With Answers

If you have questions, please ask below

Leave a Reply

If you have any questions headover to our forums

You can use these XHTML tags: <a href="" title=""> <abbr title=""> <acronym title=""> <blockquote cite=""> <code> <em> <strong>